So I have something interesting regarding this.

I used to think “The commons was England being based, huh. We’ll give them one.” It kinda made no sense, but I bit the bullet.

But remember what England is: originally Celtic, with Roman, then Saxon and Norman layers.

It all made sense whenI read Recognizing and Moving on from a Failed Paradigm: The Case of Agricultural Landscapes in Anglo-Saxon England c. AD 400-800. Susan Oosthuizen 1 Journal of Archaeological Research volume 24, pages 179-227 (2016)

She shows that the commonage tradition is a remainder of Britain’s indigenous Celtic lifeways, which then got compromised and mixed with imperialistic legal systems like the Roman. This makes an internal English struggle a struggle between based communal nativelaws and property-based invaderlaws