Where “feudalism” refers to a specific form of society and not just “that time period”
It’s not that the feudalist mode of production itself lays the groundwork for capitalism, but rather the appearance of mercantilism, global expansion of markets, and industrialization, combined with a bourgeoisie revolution and a change in the relations of production, that led to capitalism becoming the primary mode of production in western society.
The feudalist mode of production arises from the collapse of the ancient mode of production, barbarian invasion destroying the productive forces (Franks, Vandals, Huns, Goths et al.), suspended trades from no longer existent trade routes, the decline of the population due to disease (Antonine Plague, Plague of Cyprian, outbreaks of smallpox etc.), and the subsequent spreading out of the remaining population away from former city-states and to the country.
Marx talks about it in more detail in The German Ideology.
thanks for the helpful response!
ancient mode of production
what was this and how did it differ from production under feudalism?
It depends (because the “ancient” mode of production is kind of vaguely defined, had less surplus and was less global so varied more from local conditions, also Marx describes an “asiatic mode” that today we’d say is a conflation between his poor understanding of Asian Feudal/Ancient states, and his poor understanding of the Bronze Age-era Theocratic Command Economies)
But in general we’re talking about the post-Bronze Age semi-market based slave economies in Europe, and similar economies elsewhere, where the three classes were patrician, plebian, and slave (or Spartan, Perioikoi, and Helot) This is of course kind of a partial explanation since Marx heavily biased his analysis to Greco-Persian and Roman Societies.
The chief distinction between Ancient and Feudal is that slavery is the key basis of the system, far more so than even the imperial capitalist economies and that class conflict is primarily between the two non-productive classes over control over the productive class. This conflict develops a social contract and a rule of law that is more collaborative than the previous Warrior-Theocratic systems, and also a more individualistic market economy as a result, as the rich plebians seek direct control over their slave surplus.
However in the late mode of this society this creates a new tension, where the plebian and patrician classes merge under the legal frameworks, but richer members of both classes begin to dominate the economy entirely as power concentrates, to the extent they are independent of the political centre. Additionally, new technological developments allow self-sustaining rural economies with similar surpluses from smaller political units.
Add a cascade failure or two from famine or war to this tension causing communication networks to break down and substinance agriculture to return, and the landowners (or their deputies, or their deputies deputy) become the ruling class of the new system, with the bonds of land ownership merging with the civil/legal bonds to create ties of obligation. Because there are no central legions to slap down slave rebellions, the landowners are forced to rely on a small group of personal companions and yeomen to keep order, which requires progressively giving the slaves more legal rights in order to maintain control.
Meanwhile the poorer urban classes, losing their surplus, are forced to become productive in their own right, forming the core of a merchant/craftsman class that becomes our Bourgoise/Proletariat.
That was a fascinating read, thank you!
could you elaborate on why
concentration of power under rich members of both classes, independent of the political center
destabilizes this system?
also, could you clarify what you mean by this:
new technological developments allow self-sustaining rural economies with similar surpluses from smaller political units
and this:
causing communication networks to break down