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11 points
no, emphatically:
- an infinite set is countable if there is a one to one mapping between it and the natural numbers. this is easy with the first set as you can literally count off, 1, 2, 3, etc…
- the second set is countable in exactly the same way.
this is extremely basic set theory. you’re deeply misinformed.
6 points
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no shit. I’m saying you can’t use an enumerable set to produce a mapping with the reals. the natural numbers are an infinite set yet are definitionally countable as they are the ordinals.
disengage, you’re arguing nonsense with someone with a literal degree in mathematics.
1 point
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