There are deffo a bunch of modern exegetes and theologians who contest that the sins for which Sodom and Gomorrah were punished included homosexual behaviour, as the passage in the Old Testament doesn’t explicitly say that it has to do with male-on-male sexuality activity Sexual violence and violence in general, as well as pride and mistreatment of the poor are more clearly cited, and it’s indicative of how fucked the dominant groups in history have been that they did not emphasize this while they did emphazise homosexuality. These exegetes often cite a later passage: Ezekiel 16:49–50 “This was the guilt of your sister Sodom: she and her daughters had pride, excess of food, and prosperous ease, but did not aid the poor and needy. They were haughty, and did abominable things before me; therefore I removed them when I saw it.” It’s true the Bible also contains many more references to the evil of the rich who do not aid the poor, and even seems to consider, at points, poverty as a form of social violence. The Talmud also references sexual violence and lack of hospitality explicitly. Ofc we can also ask what is meant by ‘abominable’ in this passage. It could be using it in the same sense as the word (the same word, which we translate often in English as ‘abomination’) used in Leviticus 18:22 - “You shall not lie with a male as with a woman; it is an abomination.” Chapter 18 verse 22 - and 20:13: “And if a man also lies with mankind, as with womankind, both of them have committed abomination; they shall surely be put to death; their blood shall be upon them.” In the NT, we have Jude 1:7 which says that Sodom and Gomorrah “indulged in sexual immorality and pursued unnatural lust, serve as an example by undergoing a punishment of eternal fire.” This isn’t conclusive but it is suggestive imo. I guess it also depends on what we understand as ‘adultery’ here.

Philo (d. AD 50) and Josephus (37 –c. 100) were the first to explicitly say that the sin of Sodom was same-sex sexual behaviour.

Personally, although it’s weaker as evidence, I think the fact that by the 1st century AD, and later in Islamic societies, it seems to have been a mainstream view that at least one, if not a main, sin of Sodom et al. was same-sex sexual activity, perhaps indicates that it may have been so interpreted earlier, and in any case tells us relevant info about the religious cultures in question. Also, as noted above, Leviticus still seems pretty unequivocal to me, though I could be wrong, as I’m not a Hebrew scholar.