Or is it just an unfalsifiable claim that’s used to move the goalposts when there’s not sufficient evidence for any of the signs or traits of a genocide? A genocide without deaths, refugees, dehumanizing propaganda, or willful misallocation of resources?
The guy who coined the term “genocide” originally meant what we would call “cultural genocide,” and explicitly wanted it to be recognized. However, cultural genocide is not recognized in international law.
If you’re asking about the situation in Xinjiang, what’s happening there does not qualify as cultural genocide in any case. The Chinese government builds mosques, teaches the Uighur language, and celebrates the Uighur culture. Governments committing cultural genocide don’t do that. The US and Canada didn’t celebrate Native American culture in its residential schools for Native American children, for example.
