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no, emphatically:
- an infinite set is countable if there is a one to one mapping between it and the natural numbers. this is easy with the first set as you can literally count off, 1, 2, 3, etc…
- the second set is countable in exactly the same way.
this is extremely basic set theory. you’re deeply misinformed.
no shit. I’m saying you can’t use an enumerable set to produce a mapping with the reals. the natural numbers are an infinite set yet are definitionally countable as they are the ordinals.
disengage, you’re arguing nonsense with someone with a literal degree in mathematics.
Do you pull the lever killing one person for every integer
Or do you do nothing, allowing the trolley to kill one person for every real number
The meme establishes the same mapping on both infinities so both infinities have the same cardinality meaning that actually the second infinity is not continuum but aleph null
